Model answers in exam format. Tap a question to read the answer.
Ans: Res ipsa loquitur is Latin for “the thing speaks for itself”. It is a rule of evidence in negligence cases. When an accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen unless someone was careless, the court may infer negligence from the accident itself, without direct proof of what went wrong.
The maxim does not reverse the burden of proof in the full sense. It lets the court infer negligence and requires the defendant to give an explanation that is consistent with due care. If he gives a reasonable explanation, the inference falls.
Ans: Motive is the reason or purpose behind an act. It is why a person does something, as distinct from intention, which is what he means to do.
In the law of torts, a lawful act does not become unlawful because it was done with a bad motive. If the act breaks no legal right, the actor is not liable, however spiteful he may be.
Ans: Malice has two meanings in the law of torts.
It means a wrongful act done intentionally, without just cause or excuse. Bayley J described it in Bromage v. Prosser (1825) as a wrongful act done intentionally and without just cause or excuse. Ill will against the plaintiff is not needed.
It means a spiteful or improper motive, such as ill will, a desire to injure, or an intention to use a legal right for a purpose it was not meant to serve.
For most torts, such as negligence and trespass, the defendant’s state of mind does not matter. In Bradford Corporation v. Pickles (1895) a malicious motive did not make a lawful act wrongful.
Ans: Sovereign immunity is the rule that the State cannot be sued in tort without its consent. It comes from the English maxim “the King can do no wrong”. In England the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947 largely removed it.
The immunity survives only in a narrow area of true sovereign functions, such as defence and administration of justice, and even then not for violations of fundamental rights.
Ans: Joint liability arises when two or more persons are together responsible for one wrong and for one harm. Each can be made to pay the whole damages.
The Koursk (1924) distinguished joint tortfeasors from several concurrent tortfeasors. The latter are persons whose separate, unconnected wrongs combine to cause a single harm, such as two negligent drivers in one collision.
Ans: Acquiescence means that a person who knows of a wrong, and who stands by without objecting, loses the right to complain of it later. It rests on the principle that a person cannot, by silence, lead another to believe he does not object, and then act against him.
Example: A builds a wall on his land that encroaches slightly on B’s land. B watches the construction for months, never objects, and sues only after the wall is complete. B may be refused the order to demolish it.
Consent is given before the act and operates as volenti non fit injuria. Acquiescence is passivity during or after the act.
Ans: Waiver is the voluntary giving up of a known right. In tort the word has two uses.
Waiver needs knowledge and a clear intention. Silence alone is not waiver. Mere delay may amount to acquiescence, not waiver.
Ans: Accord and satisfaction is a way of ending a claim for a tort by agreement. The accord is an agreement under which the injured person accepts something different from, or less than, what he is entitled to, in full settlement. The satisfaction is the actual giving of that thing.
Example: A injures B in a road accident. B agrees to accept Rs 50,000 in full settlement of his claim, and A pays it. B cannot afterwards sue A for more.
Ans: A release is the formal giving up of a claim by the injured person. It discharges the tortfeasor from liability for the wrong.
A release is a complete and immediate discharge, usually in writing. Accord and satisfaction involves a settlement on new terms that must be carried out.
Ans: Assault is an act of the defendant that makes the plaintiff reasonably fear that force will immediately be used against him. The tort protects a person’s peace of mind and freedom from the apprehension of harm. Actual contact is not needed.
Remedy: damages, and in some cases an injunction. The same act may also be a crime.
Ans: Battery is the intentional application of force to another person without lawful justification. It protects the right to bodily integrity. The slightest touch may be enough.
Consent, self-defence, parental discipline, lawful arrest or authority, and necessity.
Assault is the threat that creates fear of immediate force. Battery is the actual use of force. The two commonly occur together, but either can exist without the other.
Ans: False imprisonment is the unlawful and total restraint of a person’s freedom of movement. Imprisonment in this sense does not need a prison. A room, a street or a vehicle will do.
Damages (the plaintiff need not prove special damage), the writ of habeas corpus, and compensation under Articles 32 and 226 for State action. The tort is also a crime of wrongful confinement.
Ans: Malicious prosecution is the tort of starting criminal proceedings against a person maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause, which end in the person’s favour and cause him damage. It protects a person from the misuse of the machinery of justice.
Remedy: damages. The limitation period is one year from the date of acquittal (Article 74 of the Limitation Act, 1963).
Ans: Nervous shock means a recognised psychiatric illness or injury caused by the sudden shock of seeing or hearing a frightening event. It is not mere grief or sorrow. The law of negligence gives damages for it in limited circumstances.
A primary victim who is in the zone of physical danger needs only to show that some physical injury was foreseeable (Page v. Smith (1996)). Indian courts follow the English cases when awarding damages for mental shock.
Ans: Trespass to land is the unjustified, direct interference with another person’s possession of land. It is actionable without proof of damage.
The tort is actionable per se. In Entick v. Carrington (1765) the court held that every invasion of private property, however small, is a trespass.
A person who enters lawfully under a legal authority, and then abuses the authority by a wrongful act, is treated as a trespasser from the start (The Six Carpenters’ Case (1610)).
Licence or consent, legal authority, necessity, private defence and the right to re-enter. Remedies include damages, an injunction, recovery of possession and the occupier’s right to eject the trespasser by reasonable force.
Ans: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it. It is usually caused by smoke, smell, noise, vibrations or similar disturbances coming from a neighbour’s land.
In St. Helen’s Smelting Co. v. Tipping (1865) the House of Lords distinguished damage to property from mere personal discomfort. For the second kind, the locality is relevant. See also Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980), where the Supreme Court used the criminal law of public nuisance to compel a municipality to clear open drains.
Prescription (twenty years’ use), statutory authority, consent of the plaintiff and, in public nuisance, the plaintiff’s own contribution. Coming to the nuisance is not a defence. Remedies: damages, injunction and abatement.
Ans: Defamation is the publication of a false statement about a person that tends to lower him in the estimation of right-thinking members of society, or to make them shun or avoid him. It protects a person’s reputation.
Libel is defamation in permanent form, such as writing or printing. Slander is defamation in transient form, such as speech or gestures.
In Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016) the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of criminal defamation. Remedy: damages and an injunction.
Ans: Passing off is the tort of making a false representation, in the course of trade, that the defendant’s goods or services are those of the plaintiff, or are connected with him. It protects the plaintiff’s goodwill from misuse.
Courts ask whether the defendant’s get-up, name, mark or packaging is likely to confuse an average customer with imperfect recollection. Proof of actual deception is not necessary.
Remedies: an injunction, damages or an account of profits, and delivery up of infringing material.
Ans: Civil conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to injure another person, which is carried out and causes him damage. It is a tort in itself.
An act that is lawful for one person does not become a tort because several persons do it together, unless the object is to injure. In Mogul Steamship Co. v. McGregor Gow (1892) shipowners who formed a combination to drive a competitor out of trade, for their own gain, were held not liable.
Criminal conspiracy under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (now in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) is a separate offence.
Ans: A remedy is the means by which the law redresses a wrong. In tort, remedies are of two kinds.
The law allows the injured person to act himself, without going to court, in these cases:
All extra-judicial remedies must be used promptly, with reasonable force only, and without breaching the peace. Excess makes the person liable in tort.
Ans: Remoteness of damage asks how far the defendant is liable for the consequences of his wrong. A defendant is not liable for every loss that follows his act. Some consequences are too remote.
The rule is the standard test in India as well. For the full treatment, see the long answers on remoteness.
Ans: An injunction is a court order directing a person to refrain from a wrongful act or, in some cases, to undo it. It is an equitable remedy, and the court grants it at its discretion. In India, Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 govern it.
Among others: to stop a judicial proceeding, to restrain the breach of a contract that cannot be specifically enforced, where the plaintiff has acquiesced, or where damages would be adequate.
Ans: Actio personalis moritur cum persona means that a personal action dies with the person. At common law, if either the wrongdoer or the injured person died, a personal claim in tort died with him.
The maxim still applies to purely personal torts, such as defamation, assault and malicious prosecution, so far as Section 306 excludes them.
Ans: Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a consumer as a person who buys goods, or hires or avails of services, for a consideration that has been paid, promised, partly paid or partly promised, or paid under a system of deferred payment.
Under Explanation (a), “commercial purpose” does not include use of goods or services exclusively to earn a livelihood by self-employment.
Sections: 2(7)
Ans: Section 2(9) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 says consumer rights include six rights:
Sections: 2(9)1018
Ans: Under the doctrine of strict liability, a person is liable for harm caused by a dangerous thing escaping from his land, even if he took all reasonable care. It comes from Rylands v. Fletcher (1868).
Blackburn J said that a person who, for his own purposes, brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it at his peril. If he fails, he is answerable for all the damage that is the natural consequence of its escape.
The defendants built a reservoir on their land. Water escaped through old mine shafts and flooded the plaintiff’s coal mine. The House of Lords held the defendants liable.
In India the rule has been replaced for hazardous industries by the wider rule of absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987).
Ans: Absolute liability is the Indian rule that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate those harmed by an accident in the course of that activity. It is not subject to the exceptions recognised in Rylands v. Fletcher.
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum gas leak case. Oleum gas escaped from a unit of Shriram Foods and Fertilizers in Delhi, and one person died. Bhagwati CJ declined to follow the English rule, which belonged to a different stage of industrial development, and laid down a new principle for India.
Ans: The word tort comes from the Latin tortum, meaning something twisted or wrongful. In law a tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is a claim for unliquidated damages.
Ans: Both maxims show that a tort needs a violation of a legal right. Loss alone is not enough.
It means violation of a legal right without actual loss. The act is actionable, because the right itself is protected.
It means loss without violation of a legal right. It is not actionable, however serious the loss.
In torts, every violation of a legal right is actionable even without loss (injuria sine damno), but loss that results from the lawful exercise of one’s own rights has no remedy (damnum sine injuria).
Ans: A person is liable in tort only when the following elements are present.
If the wrong is only a breach of contract or of trust, it is not a tort. The common law remedy of unliquidated damages marks out a tort from those wrongs.
Ans: Torts affecting the human body protect a person’s bodily safety, freedom and peace of mind. They are mostly torts of direct interference, called trespass to the person.
An act that makes the plaintiff reasonably fear immediate force. Stephens v. Myers (1830): the defendant moved towards the plaintiff with a clenched fist and was stopped before he struck. It was an assault.
The intentional application of force, however slight, without justification. Cole v. Turner (1704): the least touching of another in anger is a battery. Collins v. Wilcock (1984): ordinary touching that is generally acceptable in everyday life is not a battery.
The total, unlawful restraint of a person’s liberty. Bird v. Jones (1845): blocking one way out of a public way was not imprisonment. Meering v. Grahame-White Aviation (1919): the plaintiff need not know he is being detained. Bhim Singh v. State of J&K (1985): compensation for illegal detention by police.
Starting a prosecution without reasonable and probable cause, with malice, which ends in the plaintiff’s favour and causes damage. Mohamed Amin v. Jogendra Kumar Bannerjee (1947).
Psychiatric injury caused by shock. Dulieu v. White (1901); Hambrook v. Stokes (1925); Alcock v. Chief Constable of South Yorkshire (1992).
Wilkinson v. Downton (1897): the defendant falsely told the plaintiff that her husband had been seriously injured in an accident. She suffered a serious illness from the shock. The defendant was liable for a deliberate act calculated to cause harm.
Damages, which may include aggravated or exemplary damages for wilful acts, and an injunction. The writ of habeas corpus is available against illegal detention.
Ans: Injurious falsehood (also called malicious falsehood) is the publication of a false statement, with malice, about the plaintiff’s goods, property or business, which causes him actual financial loss. It protects economic interests, not reputation.
Ans: Defamation is the publication of a false statement that lowers a person in the estimation of right-thinking people. Under the English common law, the form of the statement decides the kind of defamation, and the kind decides what the plaintiff must prove.
Writing lasts longer and travels further than speech. Courts therefore treat libel as more harmful.
The criminal law in India does not distinguish between libel and slander. Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (now Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) covers words spoken or intended to be read, signs and visible representations alike.
Ans: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over it. Winfield and Jolowicz described it as an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.
Damages, injunction, and abatement. In public nuisance, a magistrate may act under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. In Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980) the Supreme Court ordered a municipality to remove open drains that were a public nuisance.
Trespass is a direct entry on land and is actionable per se. Nuisance is an indirect interference and needs proof of damage.
Ans: A tort is a civil wrong, other than a mere breach of contract or trust, for which the remedy is an action for unliquidated damages (Salmond).
Ans: A defendant is not liable for every consequence of his wrong. The law must draw a line. Two tests have been used: directness and reasonable foreseeability.
The foreseeability test is the accepted test for negligence. It fixes liability for the kinds of loss that a reasonable person would foresee, and excludes the unforeseeable.
Ans: Product liability is the responsibility of a manufacturer, seller or service provider to compensate a person for harm caused by a defective product or deficient service. Section 2(34) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines it. Chapter VI (Sections 82 to 87) governs it.
A complainant may bring a product liability action against a product manufacturer, a product service provider or a product seller for harm caused by a defective product.
A service provider is liable for a faulty or deficient service, for negligence or for failing to warn. A product seller who is not the manufacturer is liable if he controlled the design, testing or labelling, altered the product, gave his own express warranty, or sold a product whose manufacturer cannot be identified.
No action lies against a seller if the product was misused, altered or modified at the time of harm. A manufacturer is not liable for failure to warn where the product was bought by an employer and warnings were given to the employer, among other cases.
Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932) held that a manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate consumer. The Act extends this to a no-fault liability.
Sections: 2(34)8384858687
Ans: Volenti non fit injuria means that no wrong is done to a person who consents. A person who voluntarily agrees to take the risk of harm cannot afterwards sue for it. It is a general defence in torts.
The defence does not apply to rescuers who act on the emergency created by the defendant (Haynes v. Harwood (1935)), nor generally when a statutory duty is owed to the plaintiff for his protection.
Ans: Caveat emptor means “let the buyer beware”. Under this common law rule, the buyer must inspect the goods and take the risk of defects. The seller is not liable for quality unless he gave a warranty or committed fraud.
It rests on the idea that parties bargain at arm’s length and that the buyer can examine the goods himself. Chandelor v. Lopus (1603) is an early authority.
Section 16 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 states the rule: there is no implied condition as to quality or fitness, except as the Act provides. The main exceptions are:
The rule has declined. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 protects the consumer against defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices, and gives a product liability remedy. The law now leans towards caveat venditor (let the seller beware).
Ans: A foreign sovereign is a foreign State, its ruler or its ambassador. International law gives such persons immunity from the jurisdiction of the courts of another State, based on the equality of sovereign States.
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, which India has enacted through the Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act, 1972, gives diplomatic agents immunity from civil and criminal jurisdiction, with a few exceptions.
Modern law distinguishes between sovereign acts (acta jure imperii), which are immune, and commercial acts (acta jure gestionis), which are not. See The Philippine Admiral (1977) and Trendtex Trading Corp. v. Central Bank of Nigeria (1977). This is why a foreign State that trades can be sued in tort or contract, with the Central Government’s consent in India.
Ans: Wrongful confinement is the intentional, unlawful total restraint of a person within limits from which he has no way out. In civil law it is the tort of false imprisonment. The Indian Penal Code (Sections 339 to 342, now in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) made it a crime.
Lawful arrest, consent, and legal authority such as a parent’s reasonable control over a child.
Ans: Statutory liability is the liability that arises when a person breaks a duty imposed by a statute, and the breach causes harm to another. It is a tort known as breach of statutory duty.
Groves v. Wimborne (1898): a statute required factory owners to fence dangerous machinery. A boy was injured by unfenced machinery. The Court of Appeal held that the owner was liable in damages, even though the statute provided a fine.
The defendant may argue that he took all reasonable steps (where the statute allows it), contributory negligence, or consent in limited cases. The plea that the defendant was careful is not a defence where the duty is absolute.
Separately, an act done under the authority of a statute is not actionable if the damage is the inevitable result of the act. The authorised body must use reasonable care.
Ans: Conversion is a wilful and wrongful dealing with another person’s goods that interferes with his right to possess or own them. The defendant treats the goods as his own. Conversion protects ownership and possession of movable property.
Trespass to goods is the direct interference with possession. Detinue is the wrongful refusal to return goods. In England, the Torts (Interference with Goods) Act, 1977 merged detinue into conversion.
Ans: Pecuniary jurisdiction is the power of a Consumer Commission to hear a complaint depending on the value of the goods or services paid as consideration. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the value is the consideration paid, not the compensation claimed (this changed from the 1986 Act).
Each section lets the Central Government prescribe another value. The Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules, 2021 revised the limits to:
The figures are as per the 2021 Rules. Students should check whether a later notification has changed them.
Sections: 34475869
Ans: The word tort comes from the Latin tortum, meaning twisted or wrongful. In English law it came to mean a civil wrong. The law of torts deals with the rights and duties of persons towards each other that are fixed by law and not by agreement.
A tort differs from a crime, which is a wrong against the State that is punished. It differs from a breach of contract, where the duty comes from the parties’ agreement and the claim lies only between them.
Ans: A defendant is liable in tort only when the law attaches liability to his conduct. These are the main principles of liability.
There must be an act or omission that violates a legal right of the plaintiff. Loss without a legal wrong (damnum sine injuria) gives no claim (Bradford Corporation v. Pickles (1895)). A legal wrong without loss (injuria sine damno) is actionable (Ashby v. White (1703)).
The general rule is that liability depends on fault, which means intention or negligence. A person is liable only if he acted wilfully, or failed to take the care that a reasonable person would have taken. Mere accident or inevitable accident does not give rise to liability.
Intention, motive and malice are important in some torts, such as conspiracy, malicious prosecution and defamation. They are irrelevant in others. A lawful act is not made unlawful by a bad motive (Bradford Corporation v. Pickles).
In negligence the plaintiff must prove a duty of care owed to him (Donoghue v. Stevenson), its breach and resulting damage.
The harm must be caused by the defendant’s act (the “but for” test, Barnett v. Chelsea and Kensington Hospital (1969)) and must not be too remote (The Wagon Mound (1961)).
Most persons, including minors and companies, are liable in tort. General defences, such as consent (volenti non fit injuria), necessity, private defence, inevitable accident, act of God and statutory authority, can remove liability.
Damages and, where suitable, an injunction are the remedies. The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium underlies the law of torts.
Ans: Fault is the basis of liability in most torts. A person is liable for harm only if he is at fault. Fault covers the mental attitude of the wrongdoer, from intention at one end to carelessness at the other.
Fault means a wrongful state of mind or conduct that the law blames. In tort it takes the form of intention, recklessness or negligence, plus malice where the law requires it.
The law uses an objective standard, the reasonable person. Blyth v. Birmingham Waterworks (1856): negligence is the omission to do something that a reasonable man, guided by the considerations that ordinarily regulate human affairs, would do, or doing something that a prudent man would not do.
If the harm happened without fault, as an inevitable accident, the defendant is not liable (Stanley v. Powell (1891)).
Modern industrial risks and consumer products have pushed the law towards strict and absolute liability, since it is often hard for the victim to prove fault.
Ans: Intention is the state of mind in which a person desires to bring about a particular consequence, or knows that it is substantially certain to follow from his act. It is the most blameworthy form of fault.
Ans: Damages are the money awarded by a court to the plaintiff as compensation for the wrong he has suffered. The main aim is to restore him, so far as money can, to the position he would have been in if the wrong had not occurred.
Ans: General defences are pleas that, if proved, make the defendant not liable even though the elements of a tort are present. They apply to many torts.
A person who has agreed to run a risk cannot complain of the harm. Mere knowledge of the risk is not enough (Smith v. Baker (1891)).
An act done to prevent a greater harm is justified. Example: pulling down a house to stop the spread of a fire (Cope v. Sharpe (No. 2) (1912)). The defendant must show that the danger was imminent and the act reasonable.
A person may use reasonable force to defend himself, his property or another person. The force must not be excessive. In Bird v. Holbrook (1828) a spring gun set to protect a garden was held unlawful.
If the harm could not have been prevented by reasonable care, the defendant is not liable (Stanley v. Powell (1891)).
An extraordinary natural event that no human foresight could guard against, such as an exceptional storm (Nichols v. Marsland (1876)).
An act done under a statute is not actionable if the damage is the inevitable result (Vaughan v. Taff Vale Railway (1860)).
The plaintiff’s own fault may bar or reduce his claim (Butterfield v. Forrester (1809)). Modern law reduces damages in proportion to his share of fault.
Mistake of fact or law is generally no defence (Consolidated Co. v. Curtis (1892)), but it may be a defence in malicious torts, where honest belief negates malice.
A judge acting judicially is not liable for what he does in good faith. In India the Judicial Officers’ Protection Act, 1850 gives this protection.
A parent or teacher may use moderate and reasonable punishment to correct a child.
Ans: A defendant may escape liability by proving a general defence. Indian law draws on the English common law and on provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (now the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023), which are used as a guide for similar principles in tort.
Acts done under a statute are not actionable, provided the damage is the inevitable result (Vaughan v. Taff Vale Railway (1860); Hammersmith Railway v. Brand (1869)).
At common law it barred recovery (Butterfield v. Forrester (1809)). The last opportunity rule softened it (Davies v. Mann (1842)). Modern law apportions the damages. Indian courts follow this in motor accident claims.
It is generally no defence, but it may negate malice or intention. Section 76 and Section 79 of the Penal Code protect acts done by mistake of fact in the belief that one is bound or justified by law.
Section 89 of the Penal Code allows acts done in good faith for the benefit of a child or a person of unsound mind, with the guardian’s consent.
Ans: Vicarious liability is the liability of one person for the wrong of another. The State is liable for the torts of its employees when they are committed in the course of employment, subject to the exception for sovereign functions.
Article 300(1) of the Constitution says that the Government of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the Union or the State. Their liability is the same as that of the Dominion of India and the Provinces before the Constitution came into force, subject to any law made by Parliament or the legislature. The pre-Constitution position is the key.
Acts such as defence, maintenance of the armed forces, administration of justice, and exercise of police powers have been treated as sovereign functions (Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of U.P. (1965)).
The Law Commission of India (First Report, 1956) recommended abolishing the immunity. No statute has been enacted. The courts have narrowed it by interpretation.
Ans: The liability of the State for torts of its servants has been shaped by decided cases, which are best taken in order.
The Calcutta Supreme Court held that the East India Company was liable for the negligence of its servants in a non-sovereign function, such as conducting a trade. It drew the distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions. The Company was not liable for acts done in the exercise of sovereign powers.
The Madras High Court allowed a suit to recover excess salt duty that the State had collected. It held that the immunity of the East India Company was confined to acts of State. There was no immunity for acts done under the colour of municipal law, so the Secretary of State was liable.
A government jeep, driven rashly by a government driver on the way to a workshop, knocked down and killed a pedestrian. The Supreme Court held the State liable, like any private employer. The driver was not performing a sovereign function.
Police seized gold from a merchant, and the head constable misappropriated it. The Supreme Court held that the State was not liable, since the seizure was done in the exercise of statutory power, which is a sovereign function. The Court noted that the law needed reform.
Rudul Sah was kept in jail for 14 years after he was acquitted. The Supreme Court awarded compensation under Article 32, holding that sovereign immunity was no answer to a breach of the right to liberty.
A young man died in police custody. The Court held the State liable to pay compensation in public law, in addition to any remedy in tort.
Railway employees raped a Bangladeshi national at the Howrah railway station. The Court awarded compensation under Article 32 for the violation of her fundamental right to life, and held that the right applies to foreign nationals.
The Supreme Court held that the sovereign function exception is outdated and that the State should be held liable for the negligent acts of its servants unless the act is truly an exercise of sovereign power.
The State is liable for torts in non-sovereign functions, and for violation of fundamental rights, even in sovereign functions. The immunity applies, if at all, only in a narrow range of true sovereign acts.
Ans: Vicarious liability is the liability of one person for the tort committed by another. The wrongdoer is liable, and so is the person who stands in a particular relationship to him. It rests on the maxims qui facit per alium facit per se (he who does an act through another does it himself) and respondeat superior (let the master answer).
A principal is liable for the torts of his agent done within the scope of the agent’s authority. This includes fraud by the agent for the principal’s benefit (Lloyd v. Grace, Smith & Co. (1912)).
Each partner is the agent of the firm. The firm and the partners are jointly and severally liable for torts committed by a partner in the ordinary course of the firm’s business (Sections 18 and 26 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932).
A company is liable for the torts of its servants and officers during their employment.
The State is liable for the torts of its servants, except in the exercise of sovereign powers (State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati (1962)).
An owner who lets another drive his vehicle is liable if the driver acts as his agent or for his purposes. Otherwise he is not (Ormrod v. Crosville Motor Services (1953)).
Ans: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was passed to protect the interests of consumers and to provide simple, quick and inexpensive redress of their disputes. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has since repealed it (Section 107), with effect from 20 July 2020. The 1986 features are as follows.
It aimed at better protection of the interests of consumers and the setting up of authorities for the settlement of consumer disputes.
It applied to all goods and services, whether in the private, public or cooperative sector, unless exempted by the Central Government.
The Act recognised the rights to safety, information, choice, to be heard, to seek redressal and to consumer education.
It set up Central, State and (later) District Consumer Protection Councils to promote and protect consumer rights (Sections 4 to 8B).
The Forum may order removal of defects, replacement of goods, refund of price, compensation, withdrawal of hazardous goods, discontinuation of unfair trade practices, corrective advertisements and costs. It may also award punitive damages.
The procedure is simple. Complaints are made on plain paper, no lawyer is needed, and a decision is meant within three to five months. The Forums have the powers of a civil court for summoning, discovery and receiving evidence on affidavits.
The 2019 Act added the Central Consumer Protection Authority, product liability, mediation, e-commerce coverage, penalties for misleading advertisements and a pecuniary jurisdiction based on the consideration paid.
Ans: An occupier of premises owes a duty of care to people who come on them. The occupier is the person who has control over the premises, not necessarily the owner (Wheat v. E. Lacon & Co. (1966)). The extent of the duty depends on the entrant’s status.
India has no occupiers’ liability statute. The courts follow the English common law and the principles of negligence. An occupier of hazardous premises is also liable under the rule of strict or absolute liability.
Ans: A tort claim, once it has arisen, can come to an end in several ways. These are called modes of extinction or discharge of liability.
At common law, a personal action died with either the wrongdoer or the victim. Statutes now allow most claims to survive (Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925), except purely personal wrongs such as defamation. Baker v. Bolton (1808) held that the death of a person gave no claim at common law. The Fatal Accidents Act, 1855 gives dependants a claim.
The plaintiff agrees to accept a different performance in full settlement, and receives it. The claim is discharged (Section 63, Indian Contract Act, 1872).
A formal discharge by the plaintiff for consideration. A release of one joint tortfeasor releases all. A covenant not to sue does not (Duck v. Mayeu (1892)).
Once a judgment is given on a cause of action, the plaintiff cannot sue again on the same cause (res judicata, Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908). Satisfaction of a judgment against one joint tortfeasor bars suits against the others.
Ans: Negligence is the breach of a legal duty to take care, which results in damage to the plaintiff that the defendant did not desire. In Blyth v. Birmingham Waterworks Co. (1856), Alderson B described it as the omission to do something that a reasonable man, guided by the considerations that regulate human affairs, would do, or the doing of something that a prudent and reasonable man would not do.
Contributory negligence (Butterfield v. Forrester (1809)), volenti non fit injuria, and inevitable accident.
Ans: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 set up a three-tier system. This answer covers the first two tiers. (The 2019 Act has since repealed the 1986 Act and renamed the bodies as District, State and National Commissions.)
A President, who is or has been, or is qualified to be, a District Judge, and two other members, one of whom is a woman. Members must be at least 35 years of age, hold a degree and have at least ten years’ experience in economics, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, public affairs or administration.
To the State Commission within 30 days, extendable for sufficient cause, on deposit of 50 per cent of the amount ordered or Rs 25,000, whichever is less.
A President who is or has been a Judge of a High Court, appointed after consulting the Chief Justice, and not fewer than two other members, one of whom is a woman.
The State Commission has the same powers as the District Forum for procedure, and may transfer cases (Section 17A) and sit in circuit benches (Section 17B). Its orders are appealable to the National Commission within 30 days (Section 19), where the order was made in its original jurisdiction.
Ans: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for three Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions, at district, State and national levels, and for mediation cells. (The 1986 Act, now repealed, had called the district body a Forum.)
Attached to each Commission, they conduct mediation if the parties agree. A settlement is recorded and becomes an order of the Commission.
It regulates matters concerning violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements. It may investigate, order the recall of goods, and impose penalties on endorsers and manufacturers.
Ans: A defendant who has committed a tort is not liable for every loss that follows. The law of remoteness decides which consequences he must pay for. The law developed through three stages.
Indian courts follow the foreseeability test in negligence, with the thin skull rule. For strict liability, the harm must also be foreseeable (Cambridge Water (1994)). Under absolute liability, the enterprise is liable for all harm from the hazardous activity (M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987)).
Ans: The two theories answer the question whether the law of tort is one general law of liability for harm, or a set of separate named wrongs.
The law has moved between the two. Many new torts and duties, including negligent misstatement, nervous shock, privacy and absolute liability, have been recognised, which supports Winfield. At the same time, courts insist that a plaintiff identify a recognised cause of action, which is closer to Salmond. A modern view is that each theory is partly right.
No questions match.