Model answers in exam format. Tap a question to read the answer.
Ans: Ecology is the scientific study of the relationship between living organisms and their physical and biological surroundings. The word comes from the Greek oikos (house) and logos (study). Ernst Haeckel coined it in 1866.
An ecosystem is a community of living things interacting with each other and with the non-living environment as one functional unit. A.G. Tansley introduced the term in 1935.
Terrestrial ecosystems (forests, grasslands, deserts) and aquatic ecosystems (ponds, rivers, lakes, oceans, wetlands). Some are natural. Others, such as crop fields and cities, are man-made.
Environmental law protects ecosystems because the loss of one part can disturb the whole.
Ans: The biosphere is the part of the earth in which life exists. It is the zone where the lithosphere (land), hydrosphere (water) and atmosphere (air) meet and support living things. Eduard Suess first used the word in 1875. Vladimir Vernadsky developed the idea.
It extends from the deep ocean floor to the lower part of the atmosphere, a thin layer of a few kilometres around the earth.
Ans: Biodiversity, or biological diversity, means the variety of life on earth. The Convention on Biological Diversity (1992) defines it as the variability among living organisms from all sources, including terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are part. It includes diversity within species, between species and of ecosystems.
It provides food, medicine, fibre, clean air and water, and keeps ecosystems stable.
Loss of habitat, over-exploitation, pollution, invasive species and climate change.
Ans: The ozone layer is a belt of ozone gas (O3) in the stratosphere, about 15 to 35 kilometres above the earth. It absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet-B radiation from the sun. Ozone depletion is the thinning of this layer.
Man-made chemicals called ozone-depleting substances (ODS): chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, carbon tetrachloride and methyl chloroform. They are used in refrigerators, air-conditioners, aerosols and fire extinguishers. In the stratosphere, ultraviolet light breaks them down and releases chlorine and bromine atoms, which destroy ozone molecules.
Scientists of the British Antarctic Survey (Farman, Gardiner and Shanklin) reported a large seasonal thinning over Antarctica in 1985.
Ans: Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth’s surface, caused mainly by the build-up of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere from human activity.
Gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapour and fluorinated gases trap heat that the earth radiates. A natural level of this effect keeps the earth warm. Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, agriculture and industry have increased the gases and made the effect stronger.
Ans: Under strict liability, a person who keeps a dangerous thing on his land for his own purposes is liable for the damage caused if it escapes, even if he took reasonable care. The rule comes from Rylands v. Fletcher (1868).
Fletcher built a reservoir on his land, with the help of contractors. Water escaped through old mine shafts under the land and flooded Rylands’s coal mine. The House of Lords, affirming Blackburn J, held Fletcher liable. Blackburn J said that a person who brings on his land and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it at his peril, and is answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
Consent of the plaintiff, default of the plaintiff, act of God (Nichols v. Marsland (1876)), act of a stranger and statutory authority.
The Supreme Court declined to follow the rule’s exceptions for hazardous industries and laid down absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987).
Ans: Absolute liability is the rule that an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate for harm caused by the activity, with no exceptions. It was laid down by the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum gas leak case.
Oleum gas leaked from a unit of Shriram Foods and Fertilizer Industries in Delhi, a few days after a smaller leak from the same unit. A lawyer died and others were affected. The Court considered what rule to apply to the liability of the enterprise.
The Court said that the English rule belonged to an earlier time. Modern industry needs a rule that protects the community and puts the cost of harm on the enterprise that profits from the risk.
Ans: The National Green Tribunal is a specialised body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for the quick disposal of cases about environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources. It was established on 18 October 2010. It replaced the National Environment Tribunal and the National Environment Appellate Authority.
The Supreme Court held in Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai v. Ankita Sinha (2021) that the Tribunal can act on its own motion.
Ans: The Constitution of India has express provisions on the environment, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
The Constitution does not say that there is a fundamental right to a clean environment. The Supreme Court has read it into Article 21, the right to life and personal liberty:
Articles 48A and 51A(g) are used to give content to Article 21 and to support restrictions on activities that harm the environment.
Sections: Art. 21Art. 48AArt. 51A(g)
Ans: Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The Brundtland Commission (World Commission on Environment and Development) gave this definition in its report Our Common Future (1987).
Principles 3 and 4 of the Rio Declaration, 1992 say that the right to development must be fulfilled to meet the developmental and environmental needs of present and future generations, and that environmental protection is an integral part of the development process. The Johannesburg Summit (2002) and the Sustainable Development Goals (2015) carry it forward.
Ans: The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat was adopted on 2 February 1971 at Ramsar, Iran, and came into force on 21 December 1975. It is the oldest modern global environmental treaty and is the only one that deals with a single ecosystem type.
Conservation and wise use of all wetlands, through local and national action and international cooperation, as a contribution towards sustainable development.
Ans: The convention commonly called the Bonn Convention is the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS). It was adopted at Bonn on 23 June 1979 and came into force on 1 November 1983. (The question bank gives 1992, but the Convention is of 1979.)
It protects migratory species of wild animals, including birds, marine mammals, turtles and fish, that cross national borders. It provides a framework for cooperation between range States.
India has been a party since 1 November 1983. It signed the Memorandum of Understanding on the Siberian Crane (1998) and hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties at Gandhinagar in 2020. It also protects migratory species under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Ans: There is no binding treaty called the “Nairobi Convention, 1982”. What took place in 1982 was a Special Session of the Governing Council of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), held at Nairobi, Kenya, from 10 to 18 May 1982, to mark the tenth anniversary of the Stockholm Conference of 1972. It adopted the Nairobi Declaration, which is a political, non-binding statement.
The UN General Assembly, by Resolution 38/161 (1983), set up the World Commission on Environment and Development under Gro Harlem Brundtland. Its 1987 report, Our Common Future, popularised the concept of sustainable development and led to the Rio Earth Summit of 1992.
(A different treaty, the Nairobi Convention for the Protection, Management and Development of the Marine and Coastal Environment of the Western Indian Ocean, was adopted in 1985.)
Ans: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (the Earth Summit) at Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992. It came into force on 29 December 1993. India became a party in 1994.
India enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to implement the Convention.
Ans: The Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted on 11 December 1997 at Kyoto, Japan. It entered into force on 16 February 2005.
Ans: The Johannesburg meeting of 2002 was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD), held at Johannesburg, South Africa, from 26 August to 4 September 2002. It is also called Rio+10 or the Earth Summit 2002. It was a summit, not a convention, and it did not create a new treaty.
It confirmed the principles of the Rio Declaration of 1992 and Agenda 21. It focused on poverty eradication, changing patterns of consumption and production, and protecting natural resources. It was criticised for lacking binding commitments and time-bound targets.
Ans: The National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995 was passed to provide strict liability for damage from accidents that occur while handling hazardous substances, and for quick relief and compensation for the victims. It was meant to work with the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
The Tribunal was never made functional. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 repealed this Act and the National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997.
Ans: A public nuisance is an act or omission that causes a common injury, danger or annoyance to the public, or to people in general who live or own property in the vicinity, or that must necessarily obstruct, injure or annoy persons using a public right. Section 268 of the Indian Penal Code (now Section 270 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) defines it.
Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980): the Supreme Court used Section 133 to compel a municipality to clear open drains and to provide sanitation. The Court said that a financial shortage does not excuse failure to perform a statutory duty.
Ans: Public interest litigation (PIL) allows any public-spirited person or organisation to approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226 for the protection of the environment. This is needed because environmental harm affects the public as a whole, and victims are often poor, scattered or unaware.
The Court has warned against PIL used for private or publicity ends, and has said that the petitioner must be acting in good faith (State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010)). Since 2010, many environmental disputes go first to the National Green Tribunal.
Ans: An endangered species is a species that is at a high risk of becoming extinct in the near future. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) classifies species in its Red List as Extinct, Extinct in the Wild, Critically Endangered, Endangered, Vulnerable, Near Threatened and Least Concern.
Loss of habitat, hunting and poaching, illegal trade, pollution, invasive species and climate change.
Ans: Acid rain is rain, snow, fog or dry deposits with a pH lower than normal (below about 5.6) because of acids in the atmosphere. Robert Angus Smith used the term in 1872.
Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, released mainly from burning coal and oil in power stations, factories and vehicles, react with water, oxygen and other chemicals in the air to form sulphuric and nitric acids. Wind carries them far from the source.
Ans: The polluter pays principle says that the person who causes pollution must bear the cost of the damage and of restoring the environment. The OECD adopted it in 1972 as an economic principle. Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration (1992) promotes it.
The liability is for compensation to the victims and for the cost of restoring the damaged environment. It is not only a right of the victim. It is a principle that the State enforces on behalf of the public. It works with the precautionary principle.
Ans: The public trust doctrine says that certain natural resources, such as air, water, the sea, the shores and forests, are held by the State in trust for the free and unrestricted use of the public. The State is the trustee, not the owner, and must not transfer them to private use if it harms the public.
It comes from Roman law and the English common law. In the United States, Illinois Central Railroad v. Illinois (1892) held that the State could not give away the bed of Lake Michigan. Professor Joseph Sax revived the doctrine in 1970.
The doctrine draws on Article 21 and on the duty in Article 48A.
Ans: Climate change is a long-term change in the average weather patterns of the earth. Article 1(2) of the UNFCCC defines it as a change of climate that is attributed directly or indirectly to human activity that alters the composition of the global atmosphere, in addition to natural climate variability observed over comparable time periods.
Emission of greenhouse gases from fossil fuels, deforestation, agriculture and industry.
Ans: The right to development is the right of every person and every people to take part in, contribute to and enjoy economic, social, cultural and political development, in which all human rights and freedoms can be fully realised. The UN Declaration on the Right to Development (1986) says it is an inalienable human right.
Development often needs the use of natural resources, such as land, forests and water, and it may cause pollution. Courts therefore balance the two through sustainable development.
Developing countries argue that they have a right to develop and to be given help in doing so, under the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities.
Ans: Article 21 says that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court has read it widely, and it is now the main constitutional basis for environmental protection in India.
The Court developed the polluter pays principle, the precautionary principle, the public trust doctrine and absolute liability, all of which flow from the right to life. A person can seek relief under Article 32 or Article 226.
Sections: Art. 21
Ans: Transboundary pollution is pollution that originates in one State and causes harm in another State or in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Examples are acid rain, pollution of shared rivers, nuclear accidents and hazardous wastes.
Ans: Noise pollution is unwanted or excessive sound that disturbs people and harms health or the quality of life. Sources are traffic, aircraft, industry, construction, loudspeakers, generators and fireworks.
Hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, loss of sleep, poor concentration and irritation.
Ans: A coastal ecosystem is the zone where land and sea meet. It includes beaches and sand dunes, estuaries, lagoons, mangroves, salt marshes, seagrass beds and coral reefs.
Pollution from land and ships, unplanned construction, shrimp farming, sand mining, oil spills, rising sea levels and climate change.
Ans: Ecology is the branch of biology that studies how organisms interact with one another and with their physical environment. Ernst Haeckel introduced the term in 1866.
Environmental law is based on ecological science. It aims to protect the processes that keep ecosystems healthy, such as clean air and water, soil and biodiversity.
Ans: Trespass is the direct and unjustified interference with another person’s possession of land. It is actionable without proof of damage. In environmental matters, it can be used as a remedy where pollution directly enters another person’s land.
Trespass is direct and is actionable per se. Nuisance is indirect and needs proof of damage. A plaintiff may rely on both. Limits: only a person in possession of the land can sue.
Ans: Strict liability is liability without proof of fault. In the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), a person who for his own purposes brings on his land and keeps there something likely to do mischief if it escapes is liable for the damage that results from its escape, even if he was not negligent.
Plaintiff’s consent or default, act of God, act of a stranger and statutory authority.
Ans: Environmental jurisprudence is the body of legal principles and decisions that guide the protection of the environment. In India it has been developed mainly by the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
The rights of nature. In 2017 the Uttarakhand High Court declared the Ganga and Yamuna to be legal persons. The Supreme Court stayed that order.
Ans: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the main environmental body of the United Nations. The General Assembly created it by Resolution 2997 (XXVII) of December 1972, after the Stockholm Conference. Its headquarters is in Nairobi, Kenya.
It was governed by a Governing Council. Since 2012, the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), in which all member States take part, is its top decision-making body. It has an Executive Director and a Secretariat.
The Regional Seas Programme, the Montreal Protocol on ozone, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (together with the World Meteorological Organization), and the secretariats of several conventions, including CITES, the Convention on Migratory Species and the Basel Convention.
Ans: Hazardous wastes are wastes that, because of their chemical, toxic, flammable, explosive, corrosive or infectious nature, can cause danger to health or the environment, whether alone or with other wastes. In India they are regulated by the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. They replaced the earlier rules of 1989.
In Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India (2005) the Supreme Court dealt with the import and disposal of hazardous waste and applied the Basel Convention.
Ans: The word environment comes from the French environner, meaning to surround. It means everything that surrounds a living being and affects its life.
Section 2(a) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 says that environment includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists among and between water, air and land, and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organisms and property.
The natural environment exists without human action, such as forests and rivers. The man-made environment is created by humans, such as towns and dams.
Environmental law is the set of rules that protect the environment from pollution and damage, and that regulate the use of natural resources. It covers the Constitution, statutes, rules, court decisions and international treaties.
Ans: Conservation means the wise use of natural resources so that they last. Protection means preventing harm to the environment. Both are necessary for the following reasons.
Ans: Ancient India saw nature as sacred and as a part of life. Many texts and rulers gave rules for protecting trees, animals, water and air.
It treated forests as a State resource. There was a forest department, and certain forests were protected. It prescribed fines for cutting trees and for killing animals in the protected forests. It also set rules to keep cities clean and to stop the dumping of rubbish.
Ayurveda, Charaka and Sushruta records, and the Vrikshayurveda, record the care of plants and the uses of herbs.
The Bishnoi community of Rajasthan protects trees and animals. In 1730, Amrita Devi and others gave their lives to save khejri trees at Khejarli. This is an early example of protest for the environment, and it inspired the Chipko movement of the 1970s.
The ancient approach was based on harmony with nature, duty and restraint, and not on rights alone. Modern environmental law, including Article 48A and Article 51A(g), draws on this tradition.
Ans: Environmental degradation is the decline in the quality of the environment, through the depletion of resources such as air, water and soil, destruction of ecosystems and the extinction of wildlife. Pollution is the presence in the environment of substances in quantities that harm life.
Air, water, soil, noise, thermal, radioactive and marine pollution.
The Bhopal gas leak (1984), in which methyl isocyanate escaped from a Union Carbide plant, killed thousands of people and shows the effects of industrial pollution.
Ans: Causes in brief: rising population, industrial growth, urbanisation, deforestation, the use of fossil fuels, chemical farming, mining, growing consumption and waste, and weak enforcement of laws.
Implementing the Paris Agreement, the Montreal Protocol and the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Ans: Before the statutes on pollution, victims relied on the common law of torts. These remedies are still available, in addition to the statutes.
The polluter owes a duty of care to those who may be affected. If he fails to take reasonable care and causes harm, he is liable (Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932)).
The direct entry of pollutants onto the plaintiff’s land, such as dumping waste or discharging effluent.
For hazardous things that escape, Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), and in India, M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987).
A riparian owner has a right to the natural flow of water, undiminished in quantity and quality. Upstream pollution is a violation.
Each plaintiff must prove damage and the defendant’s liability. Suits are slow and costly. The remedies do not prevent harm. This is why statutes and the National Green Tribunal were created.
Ans: Noise is controlled by the Government mainly through rules, standards, licensing and enforcement.
Contravention of the Noise Rules is punishable under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (Section 15). Public nuisance provisions in the Penal Code and Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure are also used.
Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association (2000) and In re Noise Pollution (2005) gave directions to enforce the rules and treated a noise-free environment as part of Article 21.
Ans: Forests are protected by several statutes, listed here in order of time.
It protects wild animals and their habitats through sanctuaries, national parks and conservation reserves.
Forest officers can seize produce and tools, and arrest offenders. The National Green Tribunal hears cases under the Forest (Conservation) Act.
Ans: The law on forests rests on the Constitution, legislation and the decisions of the Supreme Court.
The Indian Forest Act, 1927, the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (now Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam), the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
The National Forest Policy, 1988 sets the goal of one-third of the country under forest or tree cover and stresses participation of local communities, through Joint Forest Management.
The law seeks a balance between protecting forests and the livelihood needs of tribal and forest-dwelling communities, and the needs of development.
Ans: Several laws and treaties protect wildlife and aquatic ecosystems.
Ans: The statute is the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Act 59 of 1960). The question bank gives 1961. It is a central law for the humane treatment of animals, and has been amended in 1982.
The penalties in the Act are low, and enforcement is weak.
Ans: Pollution is the presence in the environment of any substance that is, or may be, injurious to the environment. Section 2(b) and (c) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 define “environmental pollution” as the presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant, which is any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to the environment.
Air, water, soil, noise, radioactive, thermal and marine pollution.
The courts also provide remedies under Articles 32 and 226 and the law of torts.
Ans: The control of pollution in India works through institutions, standards, permission and penalties.
Penalties under each Act, and under the Environment (Protection) Act, for breach of the rules. Offences by companies make the persons in charge liable.
Ans: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was passed after the Bhopal gas leak (1984) and to implement the decisions of the Stockholm Conference (1972), under Article 253 of the Constitution. It came into force on 19 November 1986. It is an umbrella (enabling) law, with the aim of protecting and improving the environment and preventing hazards to human beings and other living creatures.
Many rules and notifications have been made under it, such as the EIA Notification, the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, the Noise Rules, and the rules on hazardous, bio-medical, plastic and e-waste.
Ans: The National Environment Tribunal was provided by the National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995. It was meant to give quick compensation for damage from accidents when handling hazardous substances. It was never made functional, and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 repealed the Act.
It was replaced by the National Green Tribunal, which has Judicial and Expert Members and a wider jurisdiction.
Ans: The National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997 (Act 22 of 1997) set up the National Environment Appellate Authority to hear appeals against the grant of environmental clearance. Its purpose was to restrict the areas in which industries or operations may be carried out, or may be carried out subject to safeguards, under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The Authority worked from 1997, but its power was narrow. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 repealed the Act, and appeals against environmental clearance now go to the National Green Tribunal.
Ans: A multinational company (MNC) operates in more than one country, usually through subsidiaries. When it causes environmental harm, questions arise about who is liable, and in which country.
The Companies Act, 2013 requires corporate social responsibility spending (Section 135) and sets duties of directors to protect the environment (Section 166(2)).
Ans: The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment was held at Stockholm, Sweden, from 5 to 16 June 1972. It was the first major world conference on the environment, and 113 countries took part. It adopted the Stockholm Declaration, with 26 principles, and an Action Plan with 109 recommendations.
The Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi, addressed the Conference and said that poverty was the greatest polluter. India followed up with the Water Act, 1974, the 42nd Amendment (Articles 48A and 51A(g)) and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which states that it implements the decisions of the Conference.
The Declaration is soft law and does not bind States, but it has shaped customary law, especially Principle 21.
Ans: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was created by UN General Assembly Resolution 2997 (XXVII) of 15 December 1972, as a result of the Stockholm Conference. It has its headquarters at Nairobi and is the main global authority on the environment.
The Ozone Secretariat (Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol), the Convention on Biological Diversity, the Convention on Migratory Species, the Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions, and the Minamata Convention on mercury.
Ans: Since 1972, UNEP has contributed to global environmental protection in the following ways.
The Regional Seas Programme (1974) covers many sea areas, such as the Mediterranean (Barcelona Convention, 1976). The Nairobi Convention (1985) covers the Western Indian Ocean.
Global Environment Monitoring System, the Global Environment Outlook reports, and early warning on emerging issues.
The Montevideo Programmes for the development of environmental law, guidelines and model laws. In 2022 the Environment Assembly agreed to start negotiations on a global treaty on plastic pollution.
World Environment Day, assistance to countries in drafting laws and building institutions, and projects financed by the Global Environment Facility.
UNEP has no power to enforce treaties. It depends on voluntary contributions and has limited funds.
Ans: The right to a clean environment is both a moral right and, today, a legal right.
Every person needs clean air, water and land to live. Ethical traditions, including the Indian tradition of duty towards nature and the idea of intergenerational equity, treat the right as arising from human dignity, even without a law.
In India it is a legal right, as a part of Article 21, and it can be enforced by writs and by the National Green Tribunal. It is also a moral right, which has helped to shape the law.
Ans: Plastic pollution is the build-up of plastic products in the environment. Much of the plastic produced ends up in rivers and oceans.
Ans: The Supreme Court has been the main force in developing environmental law in India. It has done so by reading the Constitution broadly, by relaxing standing and by developing new principles.
The Court held that the right to a healthy environment is part of Article 21 (Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra (1985); Subhash Kumar (1991)). It used Articles 48A and 51A(g) to give content to this right.
Through public interest litigation, any person could bring an environmental case. The Court appointed expert committees, used letters as petitions and monitored implementation through continuing mandamus.
The Court called for environmental courts with judicial and technical members (M.V. Nayudu), which led to the National Green Tribunal in 2010. It created Green Benches.
Critics say that the Court has entered the domain of the executive, that some orders have affected livelihoods, and that implementation is weak. Supporters say that it filled gaps left by weak enforcement.
Ans: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is the main general law on the environment. Its success has been mixed.
The Act gives a good legal framework, but its effect depends on enforcement, institutional strength and public participation.
Ans: Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle of international environmental law. It means that all States share the common responsibility to protect the environment, but their responsibilities differ because of their different contributions to the problem and their different capacities to deal with it.
Principle 7 of the Rio Declaration (1992) states it. It says that, in view of the different contributions to global environmental degradation, States have common but differentiated responsibilities, and that developed countries acknowledge the responsibility they bear in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technologies and financial resources they command.
Developing countries, including India, insist on CBDR, citing historical responsibility and the need for development. Developed countries argue that the division in the Convention is out of date, because some developing countries are now large emitters. The Paris Agreement uses a more flexible approach.
No questions match.