Model answers in exam format. Tap a question to read the answer.
Ans: The rule of law means that the State and its officials are governed by law and not by arbitrary power. A.V. Dicey explained it in his book The Law of the Constitution (1885).
Indian law accepts reasonable classification and recognises special powers for the State, such as preventive detention. It requires that these powers be exercised under law and subject to judicial review.
Ans: Article 5 of the Constitution deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950. It says that every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and satisfies one of three conditions is a citizen of India.
Domicile means the place where a person has his permanent home and intends to live permanently. It is different from residence. A person acquires a domicile of origin at birth and may later acquire a domicile of choice. The Constitution does not define it, so the common law concept applies.
Sections: Art. 5Art. 6Art. 7Art. 8Art. 9Art. 11
Ans: The right to property was originally a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 of the Constitution. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 omitted both and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A, which is in Part XII. It remains in the Constitution but is no longer in the chapter on fundamental rights.
It says that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. The State may take property only by authority of a valid law. The text of Article 300A does not mention compensation or public purpose.
Ans: The Citizenship Act, 1955, made under Article 11 of the Constitution, provides three ways in which Indian citizenship ends.
The Central Government may order a person to be deprived of citizenship obtained by registration or naturalisation, or acquired in certain other ways, if it is satisfied that:
The person must be given a notice and a chance to be heard. Article 9 of the Constitution also bars a person from claiming citizenship under Articles 5, 6 and 8 if he has voluntarily acquired a foreign citizenship.
Sections: Art. 9CA 8CA 9CA 10
Ans: The right to work is the claim of a person to earn a living by suitable employment. In India it is not a fundamental right in the strict sense. It has come to be recognised through the Directive Principles and Article 21.
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 gives every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work a legal entitlement to 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.
Ans: Equal pay for equal work means that persons doing the same work should receive the same pay, irrespective of sex or other irrelevant differences.
Equal pay does not mean equal pay for all. Differences in qualifications, experience, responsibility and the nature of duties can justify different pay. The classification must be reasonable and have a rational link with the object.
The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 required equal pay for men and women for the same or similar work. It is now part of the Code on Wages, 2019.
Ans: Article 19(1)(b) of the Constitution gives all citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It protects meetings, processions and demonstrations. It is the basis of the right to protest.
The State may impose reasonable restrictions in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or of public order. Examples are Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (now Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023), police permission rules, and the Indian Penal Code provisions on unlawful assembly.
Sections: Art. 19(1)(b)Art. 19(3)
Ans: Article 22(1) and (2) of the Constitution protect a person who is arrested. Article 21 and the Code of Criminal Procedure add more protection.
These rights are not available to an enemy alien or to a person arrested under a law providing for preventive detention.
Free legal aid for the arrested person is also part of the right to a fair procedure (Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979)).
Sections: Art. 22(1)Art. 22(2)Art. 22(3)
Ans: The right to a speedy trial is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. A procedure that is not reasonably quick is not “just, fair and reasonable” within the meaning of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).
A court may quash the proceedings or release the accused. Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (now Section 479 of the BNSS) allows the release on a personal bond of an undertrial prisoner who has served half of the maximum sentence for the offence.
Ans: Res judicata means “a matter already decided”. It is the rule that a matter finally decided by a competent court cannot be reopened between the same parties. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 states it for civil suits.
Reason for the rule: there should be an end to litigation, and a person should not be harassed twice for the same cause.
Ans: A Uniform Civil Code (UCC) means a single set of personal laws on marriage, divorce, succession, adoption and maintenance that applies to all citizens, whatever their religion.
Article 44, a Directive Principle, says that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. It cannot be directly enforced by courts.
Goa has a common civil code from Portuguese times. Uttarakhand enacted a Uniform Civil Code Act in 2024. At the national level, Parliament has not enacted a UCC. The Law Commission has examined the subject.
Ans: Article 26 gives every religious denomination or any section of it the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, to own and acquire property and to administer it in accordance with law. The Constitution does not define the term.
Article 25 protects individuals. Article 26 protects religious groups.
Ans: Article 21 says that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. It applies to every person, including foreigners.
The right to life does not include the right to die (Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)), though passive euthanasia is allowed under safeguards (Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)). The right can be restricted only by a valid law and a fair procedure.
Ans: The doctrine of severability, or separability, applies when only a part of a law is inconsistent with the fundamental rights. Article 13 makes a law void “to the extent of the inconsistency”. If the bad part can be separated from the good, only the bad part is void and the rest survives.
The doctrine also applies to the severance of invalid words within a section, in a process called “blue pencil”.
Sections: Art. 13
Ans: The doctrine of eclipse says that a pre-Constitution law that is inconsistent with a fundamental right is not dead but only overshadowed. It becomes unenforceable. If the inconsistency is later removed, the law is revived without re-enactment.
Article 13(1) makes laws in force before the Constitution void “to the extent of the inconsistency” with Part III. The Supreme Court said that the word void here means only that the law is inoperative, since the law was valid when made.
Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1955): the C.P. and Berar Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1947 gave the State a monopoly of motor transport. After 26 January 1950, it became inconsistent with Article 19(1)(g). The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 widened Article 19(6) to allow State monopolies. The Court held that the law was only eclipsed and revived once the amendment removed the shadow.
Sections: Art. 13(1)Art. 13(2)
Ans: The Constituent Assembly was the body that framed the Constitution of India. It was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of May 1946.
The Assembly took about two years, eleven months and eighteen days, and held eleven sessions. Some provisions on citizenship and the interim parliament came into force on 26 November 1949.
Ans: The right to education in India rests on Article 21A and the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act).
Ans: Article 51A, in Part IV-A, lists the fundamental duties of citizens. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally ten duties were listed. The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added the eleventh.
Sections: Art. 51A
Ans: Article 12 says that, in Part III (Fundamental Rights), unless the context requires otherwise, “the State” includes:
Fundamental rights are generally enforceable against the State. An action by a private person is not usually a violation of a fundamental right. Article 12 therefore decides whom a petition under Article 32 or 226 can be filed against.
The definition also applies to the Directive Principles in Part IV (Article 36).
Sections: Art. 12Art. 36
Ans: A constitution is the fundamental law of a country. It sets up the organs of government, defines their powers and relations, and states the rights of citizens. K.C. Wheare called it the whole system of government of a country, the collection of rules that establish and regulate the government. The Constitution of India, which came into force on 26 January 1950, is a written document.
Ans: The Government of India Act, 1919 implemented the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. It followed the declaration of 20 August 1917 by Montagu, the Secretary of State, that the British goal was the gradual development of self-governing institutions and the progressive realisation of responsible government in India.
The Act introduced responsible government only in part. The Governor-General and Governors kept big powers. It failed to satisfy nationalists, but it was a step towards federalism and responsible government, and it led to the Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans: “State” is defined in Article 12 for the purposes of Part III on Fundamental Rights. It is an inclusive definition.
An “authority” has the power to make rules or regulations with the force of law (Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal (1967)). A body that is an instrumentality or agency of the State is also State. The factors are State funding, State control, monopoly status, and the performance of a governmental function (R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979); Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib (1981)).
Private bodies and persons are not State. The Board of Control for Cricket in India was held not to be State in Zee Telefilms v. Union of India (2005). Private individuals may still be liable under some rights, such as the abolition of untouchability (Article 17) and the prohibition of forced labour (Article 23).
Courts act as State when they perform administrative functions or make rules. Their judicial decisions are not treated as “law” for Article 13 (Naresh Shridhar Mirajkar v. State of Maharashtra (1966)).
Sections: Art. 12Art. 13
Ans: Citizenship is the legal bond between a person and the State. It gives the person certain rights and imposes duties. Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5 to 11) deals with citizenship, and Parliament has legislated under Article 11 in the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Persons domiciled in India who were born in India, or whose parent was born in India, or who had been resident for five years (Article 5); certain migrants from Pakistan (Articles 6 and 7); and persons of Indian origin abroad (Article 8).
By renunciation (Section 8), termination (Section 9) and deprivation (Section 10).
It allows certain persons belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who entered India on or before 31 December 2014 to apply for citizenship, with relaxed residence requirements.
Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30; the right to vote; and eligibility for certain high offices.
Ans: An ex post facto law is a law that operates retrospectively, so that it punishes an act that was not an offence when it was done, or increases the punishment for it. Article 20(1) of the Constitution protects a person from such laws.
No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. Nor shall he be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
The protection is available to citizens and non-citizens, and it cannot be suspended even during an Emergency (Article 359).
Sections: Art. 20(1)
Ans: The Constitution uses the word “minorities” in Articles 29 and 30 but does not define it. A minority is a group that is numerically smaller than the rest of the population and has a distinct religion, language or culture.
St. Stephen’s College v. University of Delhi (1992): a minority institution may reserve a reasonable proportion of seats for its own community, but must also admit others on merit.
Ans: The fundamental duties in Article 51A balance the fundamental rights. They remind citizens that rights go with responsibilities.
Sections: Art. 51A
Ans: The doctrine of separation of powers says that the three organs of government, the legislature, the executive and the judiciary, should be separate and should perform different functions, so that power is not concentrated in one hand. Montesquieu explained it in The Spirit of the Laws (1748).
The courts do not interfere in matters assigned to the legislature, such as the proceedings in the House, and refrain from deciding purely policy questions.
Ans: Article 17 says that “untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Sections: Art. 17
Ans: Article 20(3) of the Constitution says that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
The protection also applies in the Evidence Act and the Code of Criminal Procedure (Section 161(2)), which allow a person to refuse to answer questions that may expose him to a criminal charge. The right is available to citizens and to non-citizens, and applies to criminal proceedings and not to departmental or civil inquiries.
Sections: Art. 20(3)
Ans: The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is protected by Article 19(1)(b). It is not absolute. Article 19(3) allows the State to make laws that impose reasonable restrictions on it.
The restriction must be made by a law, and it must be reasonable.
The State may stop an assembly only if it is likely to disturb public order, and not merely because it causes inconvenience. The right does not cover a violent or armed gathering.
Sections: Art. 19(1)(b)Art. 19(3)
Ans: The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950. It is a detailed document, with 395 Articles in 22 Parts and 8 Schedules when it began. It has since grown by amendments. Its main features are these.
It is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country. It deals with the structure of government and with details such as services, elections, emergency powers and the position of States.
The Government of India Act, 1935 gave the federal scheme, the three Lists and the Governor’s office. Britain gave the parliamentary system and the rule of law. The United States gave fundamental rights and judicial review. Ireland gave the Directive Principles. Canada gave the federation with a strong Centre. Germany’s Weimar Constitution gave emergency provisions. Australia gave the Concurrent List.
It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic and states the aims of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.
The executive is responsible to the legislature. The President is the nominal head and the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister holds real power.
It has a division of powers in the Seventh Schedule, a written constitution and an independent judiciary. It also has unitary features such as a strong Centre, single citizenship, emergency powers and the Governor’s role. The Supreme Court called it federal in structure with a unitary bias, and federalism is part of the basic structure (S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)).
Part III guarantees fundamental rights, enforceable by the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Part IV-A lists fundamental duties.
Part IV sets out goals of a welfare State. They are not enforceable in court but are fundamental in governance.
The Supreme Court and the High Courts can strike down laws that violate the Constitution.
The State has no religion and treats all religions equally. Articles 25 to 28 guarantee religious freedom.
Every citizen who is eighteen or older can vote (Article 326).
There is one citizenship for the whole country, one integrated judicial system, and special powers for national, State and financial emergencies (Articles 352, 356 and 360).
Article 368 provides a procedure that is partly flexible and partly rigid. Parliament cannot alter the basic structure (Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)).
Ans: The Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51). They are guidelines to the State for making laws and policy. Article 37 says they are not enforceable by any court but are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country, and that the State has a duty to apply them in making laws. The idea was taken from the Irish Constitution.
They are not justiciable, and a person cannot go to court to enforce them directly. Critics call them pious wishes. In practice, courts and Parliament have used them to bring about reforms such as land reforms, the abolition of zamindari, and the right to education.
Ans: Fundamental duties are listed in Article 51A. The Constitution does not say how they are to be enforced. They are moral and civic duties of citizens, and they have no direct sanction. Still, they can be given effect in several ways.
A citizen cannot be punished under Article 51A as such, and one cannot go to court to enforce a duty against another citizen. In A.I.I.M.S. Students’ Union v. A.I.I.M.S. (2002) the Supreme Court said that fundamental duties are not enforceable by a writ, but are a constitutional obligation of every citizen.
The Justice J.S. Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of Citizens (1999) recommended using existing laws and educational programmes to enforce them. The Law Commission and others have proposed that a failure of duty be taken into account in granting relief.
Enforcement is mostly indirect, through laws and judicial interpretation, and through education and awareness.
Sections: Art. 51A
Ans: Judicial review is the power of the courts to examine the validity of laws and executive acts and to declare them void if they are inconsistent with the Constitution. It rests on the supremacy of the Constitution. It began in Marbury v. Madison (1803) in the United States.
Judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and cannot be taken away even by an amendment.
Ans: The Preamble is the introduction to the Constitution. It states the source of authority of the Constitution, the nature of the State and the aims it seeks to secure.
The Preamble itself is not a separate part of the basic structure, but its main ideals are. Parliament can amend the Preamble under Article 368, as the 42nd Amendment did, but not in a way that destroys the basic features such as sovereignty, democracy, secularism, the republican form and the rule of law. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) held that secularism is part of the basic structure. The Preamble is not enforceable in court and cannot override a clear provision of the Constitution.
Ans: The Government of India Act, 1935 was passed after the Simon Commission, the Round Table Conferences and the White Paper of 1933. It was the longest Act that Parliament had passed on India, with 321 sections and 10 Schedules. It was the main source of the Constitution of India.
Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “charter of slavery” and a machine with strong brakes but no engine. The Governor-General and the Governors kept wide discretionary powers, and the franchise was limited. The Congress and the Muslim League criticised it.
Many provisions of the present Constitution come from this Act, including the federal scheme, the Lists, the office of Governor, the Public Service Commissions, the emergency powers and much of the administrative detail.
Ans: The Government of India Act, 1919 gave effect to the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. It came into force in 1921.
The Devolution Rules divided subjects into central and provincial lists. Residuary powers remained with the Centre.
The vote was given to only a small part of the population (about 3 per cent) on property, tax or education grounds. Separate electorates were retained for Muslims and extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
The Act introduced some responsible government but kept the real power with the British. Diarchy was clumsy because the Governor controlled finance. The Act did not satisfy the Indian National Congress. It was a stage towards the Government of India Act, 1935.
Ans: Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It is the foundation of the right to equality and one of the most important guarantees in Part III.
Equality does not mean identical treatment for all. The State may classify persons, if the classification meets two tests set in Ram Krishna Dalmia v. Justice S.R. Tendolkar (1958):
In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974) the Court said that equality is opposed to arbitrariness. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that any State action must be fair, reasonable and non-arbitrary. In Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) the Court struck down instant triple talaq as manifestly arbitrary.
The President and Governors have immunity under Article 361. Article 31C and some others protect certain laws. Foreign sovereigns and diplomats have immunity under international law.
Sections: Art. 14
Ans: Citizenship in India is regulated by Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5 to 11) and the Citizenship Act, 1955. There are two groups of modes: at the commencement of the Constitution, and after it.
It relaxes the requirement for naturalisation for certain religious minorities who came from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan on or before 31 December 2014.
A person may therefore acquire citizenship in five modes under the 1955 Act, in addition to the modes under Articles 5 to 8 at the start of the Constitution.
Sections: Art. 5-8CA 3CA 4CA 5CA 6CA 7
Ans: Double jeopardy means that a person should not be tried or punished twice for the same offence. Article 20(2) of the Constitution says that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. It reflects the common law pleas of autrefois acquit (previously acquitted) and autrefois convict (previously convicted).
Sections: Art. 20(2)
Ans: A constitution can be classified in different ways. The classification of Bryce and K.C. Wheare is commonly used.
In a republic the head of State is elected, as in India. In a monarchy the head is hereditary, as in Britain.
In some systems the legislature is supreme (Britain). In others the Constitution is supreme and courts can review laws (the United States, India).
The Indian Constitution is written, enacted, partly rigid and partly flexible, federal with a unitary bias, parliamentary and republican, and gives supremacy to the Constitution.
Ans: The Drafting Committee was the committee of the Constituent Assembly that prepared the draft of the Constitution. It was appointed on 29 August 1947, with Dr B.R. Ambedkar as Chairman.
Ambedkar steered the draft through the Assembly. T.T. Krishnamachari told the Assembly that the burden of the work fell mostly on Ambedkar, because of the illness and absence of other members. Ambedkar is called the chief architect of the Constitution.
The draft drew on the Government of India Act, 1935 and on constitutions of many countries, and it was adjusted to Indian needs. The Committee gave the Constitution its structure and language.
Ans: A Constituent Assembly is a body of representatives elected to frame the constitution of a country. India’s Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 for the following reasons.
The Government of India Acts of 1919 and 1935 were framed by the British and were not accepted. The August Offer (1940) and the Cripps Proposals (1942) accepted in principle that India would frame its own constitution after the war.
The Cabinet Mission (Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps and A.V. Alexander) rejected the demand for Pakistan and proposed a plan in May 1946. It provided for a Constituent Assembly of 389 members, with representatives from the Provinces and the Princely States.
The Constitution should have the authority of the people, and a body elected by the people, the Constituent Assembly, was the way to give it.
The Assembly first met on 9 December 1946 and took about three years to complete the Constitution.
Ans: Socialism is a political and economic idea that aims at a more equal society. The main idea is that the means of production, such as land, factories and resources, should be owned or controlled by society as a whole, so that wealth and opportunity are shared fairly and not concentrated among a few.
Ans: A federation is a union of States or provinces that share power with a central government under a written constitution. K.C. Wheare defined the federal principle as the method of dividing powers so that the general and the regional governments are each, within a sphere, co-ordinate and independent. The United States is the model.
The Constitution of India has most of these features. It also has strong unitary features, so it is described as quasi-federal, or as federal in structure with a unitary bias. The Constitution calls India a “Union of States” (Article 1). In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) the Supreme Court said that federalism is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Ans: Secularism means that the State has no religion of its own, treats all religions equally and does not discriminate on the ground of religion. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the word “secular” to the Preamble, but secularism was present from the start in Articles 14, 15, 16 and 25 to 30. India follows a positive model, with equal respect for all religions, and not a strict separation of religion and State. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) held that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution.
The freedom is not absolute. It is subject to public order, morality, health and other fundamental rights. It protects individuals (Article 25) and denominations (Article 26).
Ans: Diarchy means “dual government”, or rule by two authorities. The word comes from the Greek di (two) and arche (rule). It was introduced in the provinces of British India by the Government of India Act, 1919. The idea came from Lionel Curtis.
The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished diarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy from 1 April 1937. The 1935 Act proposed diarchy at the Centre, but it never came into effect.
Ans: The privilege against self-incrimination is the right of a person not to be forced to give evidence that may incriminate him. It comes from the common law maxim nemo tenetur seipsum accusare, which means that no man is bound to accuse himself. Article 20(3) of the Constitution gives it constitutional force.
“No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.”
It does not apply to witnesses who are not accused. It is limited to criminal proceedings. A person may also waive it by choosing to testify.
Sections: Art. 20(3)
Ans: Fundamental rights are the basic rights of the people that are guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35). They are called fundamental because they are enforceable in the Supreme Court and High Courts, and a law that violates them is void (Article 13). Originally seven rights were listed. The right to property was removed in 1978, and six groups remain.
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour, and of employment of children below 14 in factories and hazardous work.
Freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion, freedom to manage religious affairs, no compulsory tax for religion, and freedom from religious instruction in State institutions.
Protection of the interests of minorities, and the right of minorities to set up and run educational institutions.
The right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights by writs. Dr Ambedkar called it the heart and soul of the Constitution. Article 226 gives a like remedy in the High Courts.
Ans: Free legal aid means providing legal services without charge to persons who cannot afford them, so that they are not denied justice because of poverty or any other disability.
Article 39A is a Directive Principle and cannot be enforced as such. But the Supreme Court has held that free legal aid is part of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, especially for poor accused persons in criminal cases:
Free legal aid is a Directive Principle under Article 39A, and it is also a fundamental right through Article 21, in particular in criminal matters. In civil cases it is mostly provided under the statute.
Ans: Reasonable classification means grouping persons or things for the purpose of a law, in a way that has a rational basis. Article 14 forbids class legislation, which is a law that treats persons unequally without good reason. It does not forbid reasonable classification, because equal treatment of persons in different situations would itself be unequal.
The Supreme Court laid them down in State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952) and restated them in Budhan Choudhry v. State of Bihar (1955) and Ram Krishna Dalmia v. Justice S.R. Tendolkar (1958):
Geography, age, sex, profession, income, education, the nature of the business and the special needs of a group. Examples: women’s reservation in local bodies, higher tax for higher incomes, and separate rules for government servants.
Sections: Art. 14
Ans: An ex post facto law (Latin: “from a thing done afterwards”) is a law that changes the legal effect of an act that was done before the law was made. Article 20(1) of the Constitution gives protection against it in criminal cases.
In Harla v. State of Rajasthan (1951) the Court held that a law must be published and made known to the public before it can be said to be in force. A person cannot be convicted under a law that was not published.
Sections: Art. 20(1)
Ans: Articles 2, 3 and 4 of the Constitution deal with the formation of new States and the change of State boundaries. They give the Union Parliament wide power, and the States have no right to remain as they are. For this reason India is called an “indestructible Union of destructible States”.
Parliament may admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. It applies to territory outside the existing Union, such as Sikkim, which became a State by the 36th Amendment in 1975.
A law under Article 2 or 3 may contain supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions, including changes in the representation in Parliament and the State legislatures. Such a law is not an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368, so it needs only a simple majority.
The power does not extend to ceding Indian territory to a foreign country. That needs a constitutional amendment (In re Berubari Union (1960)).
Sections: Art. 2Art. 3Art. 4
Ans: The Constitution of India is federal in structure, but it contains several features that give the Union a dominant position. These are the unitary elements.
During a national emergency (Article 352), the Centre can legislate on State subjects and give directions to States, and the federal structure works as a unitary one. President’s Rule under Article 356 allows the Centre to take over the government of a State. Financial emergency is covered by Article 360.
The States have no Constitution of their own, and all citizens have one citizenship.
There is one hierarchy of courts, with the Supreme Court at the top. The High Court judges are appointed by the President.
The IAS, IPS and Indian Forest Service are common to the Union and the States and are controlled by the Centre (Article 312).
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President and holds office during his pleasure (Article 155 and 156). The Governor may reserve a Bill for the President (Article 200).
States depend on grants-in-aid and shares of Union taxes (Articles 268 to 275), recommended by the Finance Commission.
A single Election Commission, a Comptroller and Auditor-General, and uniform laws on criminal matters.
The Supreme Court said that the Constitution has a strong unitary bias but remains federal (State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1963); S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)).
Ans: Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression. It is the basis of a free democracy, because people can form opinions and criticise the government only if they can speak and write freely.
The restrictions allowed under Article 19(2) are discussed in the answer on reasonable restrictions.
Sections: Art. 19(1)(a)Art. 19(2)
Ans: The Indian Constitution is a mixture of features, and it is hard to place it in a single class. Its nature can be seen from these aspects.
Ans: Article 32 gives every person the right to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of the fundamental rights in Part III. It is itself a fundamental right. Dr Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.
Article 226 gives High Courts a wider power, since they may issue writs not only for fundamental rights but also “for any other purpose”.
Sections: Art. 32
Ans: The Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51). Article 37 says that they are not enforceable in court but are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply them in making laws.
The Constitution does not classify them. Writers divide them into three groups.
Ans: Habeas corpus is a Latin phrase that means “you may have the body”. It is a writ that directs a person who has detained another to produce the detained person before the court, so that the court may decide whether the detention is lawful. It is a remedy for illegal detention and a protection of personal liberty.
The Supreme Court can issue it under Article 32, and the High Courts under Article 226. Article 21 and Article 22 protect the right to personal liberty.
The detained person, or any other person on his behalf. The rule of locus standi is relaxed, and a letter or telegram may be treated as a petition.
It lies against the State and against private persons who unlawfully confine a person.
Ans: Mandamus is a Latin word that means “we command”. It is a writ issued by a court to a public authority, directing it to perform a public duty that it has failed to perform. It is issued under Article 32 by the Supreme Court and under Article 226 by the High Courts.
Ans: Certiorari is a Latin word that means “to be certified” or “to be informed”. It is a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority to send up the record of a case, so that the court can examine it and quash the order if it is illegal. It is a corrective remedy. It is issued under Article 32 and Article 226.
Courts, tribunals and authorities that have the duty to act judicially or quasi-judicially (T.C. Basappa v. T. Nagappa (1954)). It does not lie against a purely administrative or legislative act.
Certiorari quashes an order already made. Prohibition stops proceedings that are still going on.
Ans: Quo warranto means “by what authority”. It is a writ that the court issues to call upon a person who holds a public office to show by what authority he holds it. If he has no legal right, he is ousted. It prevents illegal usurpation of public office. It is issued under Articles 32 and 226.
The court declares the office vacant and ousts the person. Acts of the person, done as a de facto officer, are valid as against the public (de facto doctrine).
Ans: Prohibition is a writ that a superior court issues to an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial body, forbidding it from continuing proceedings in excess of its jurisdiction, or in violation of natural justice or the law. It is a preventive writ. It is issued under Articles 32 and 226.
It is not issued against a body that has finished its work, or against a body that has discretion within the limits of its jurisdiction.
Ans: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a legal action brought in a court for the protection of the public interest or the rights of persons or groups who cannot approach the court themselves because of poverty, ignorance or social or economic disadvantage. It is not a statutory term. It was developed by the Supreme Court in the late 1970s.
PIL has been misused for private or publicity purposes. In State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010) the Court laid down guidelines. The court must be satisfied about the credentials of the petitioner and the correctness of the facts, and should impose costs on frivolous petitions. In B.A.L.C.O. Employees’ Union v. Union of India (2002) it said that PIL should not be used to challenge economic policy.
Ans: Article 19(2) allows the State to make a law that imposes reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, in the interests of the following grounds only. No other ground can be used.
Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) held that Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code is valid only when the words incite violence or disorder. In S.G. Vombatkere v. Union of India (2022) the Supreme Court put its use on hold.
The restriction must be made by a law, and not by an executive order. A ground not listed in the Article, such as economic loss, cannot justify a restriction.
Sections: Art. 19(1)(a)Art. 19(2)
Ans: The statement is true. The Constitution creates a federal system, but it contains many features that make the Union stronger than the States. Because of these, K.C. Wheare called it “quasi-federal”.
The Sarkaria Commission (1988) and the Punchhi Commission (2010) examined Centre-State relations and recommended steps for cooperative federalism.
Ans: Fundamental rights (Part III) and Directive Principles (Part IV) both aim at justice, but they differ. Fundamental rights are enforceable by courts. They protect the individual against the State. Directive Principles are not enforceable. They direct the State to work for social and economic justice. The relationship between them has changed over time.
The Court struck down the extension of Article 31C by the 42nd Amendment to all Directive Principles. It said that the Constitution is founded on the balance between Parts III and IV. To give absolute primacy to one over the other disturbs the harmony of the Constitution, which is a basic feature.
Today the two are treated as complementary: the Directive Principles give content to the fundamental rights, and the rights are the means for achieving the goals.
Ans: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. After Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Court has held that the procedure must be just, fair and reasonable, and has widened the scope of “personal liberty” in many recent cases.
K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): a nine-judge Bench held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21. It protects bodily integrity, personal choices and informational privacy. The earlier decisions in M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh were overruled to the extent they held otherwise. Puttaswamy (II) (2018) upheld the Aadhaar Act with some limits.
Common Cause v. Union of India (2018): the right to die with dignity is a part of the right to life. Passive euthanasia and living wills were permitted with safeguards.
Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020): the right to use the internet for trade and expression is protected under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g), and a shutdown must be proportionate and reviewed.
The Court has treated Article 21 as a source of new rights, based on dignity, autonomy and privacy, and has linked it with Articles 14 and 19.
Ans: Article 37 of the Constitution says: “The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.” The statement has two parts.
So the Directive Principles cannot be enforced as such, but they guide the State, and are indirectly enforced through other rights and through laws.
Sections: Art. 36Art. 37
Ans: Public Interest Litigation developed in India in the late 1970s, through the Supreme Court’s decisions. Its growth can be seen in stages.
No questions match.